Teaching Aptitude Questions Series 3

1. The best method to study growth and development of the child is–

(A) Psychoanalytic Method (B) Comparative Method

(C) Developmental Method (D) Statistical Method (Ans : C)

2. Socialization is a process by which children and adults learn from '?

(A) Family (B) School (C) Peers (D) All of these (Ans : D)

3. Which one of the following is the true statement corresponding to Cephalocaudal Principle of Child's Development?

(A) Development is from head to foot (B) Development is from foot to head

(C) Development is from middle to periphery (D) None of these (Ans : A)

4. Determinants of Individual differences in human beings relate to–

(A) Differences in Environment (B) Differences in Heredity

(C) Interaction between Heredity and Environment

(D) Both Heredity and Environment interacting separately (Ans : C)

5. Term PSRN in development implies–

(A) Problem solving, reasoning and numeracy (B) Problem solving relationship and numeracy

(C) Perceptual skill, reasoning and numeracy (D) Perceptual skill, relationship and numbers (Ans : C)

6. Vygotsky proposed that Child Development is–

(A) Due to genetic components of a culture (B) A product of social interaction

(C) A product of formal education (D) A product of assimilation and accommodation (Ans : B)

7. Gardner formulated a list of Seven Intelligencies, which among the following is not one of them?

(A) Spatial Intelligence (B) Emotional Intelligence

(C) Interpersonal Intelligence (D) Linguistic Intelligence (Ans : B)

8. Which of the following is the true statement in reference to Intelligence?

(A) Intelligence is the ability to adjust (B) Intelligence is the ability to learn

(C) Intelligence is the ability of Abstract Reasoning (D) All of these (Ans : D)

9. "A Child can think logically about objects and events" This is the characteristic given by Piaget of stage–

(A) Sensory Motor (B) Pre Operational

(C) Concrete Operational (D) Formal Operation (Ans : C)

10. Which of the following does not belong to the categories of Coping strategies that women commonly engaged in–

(A) Acceptance (B) Resistance (C) Revolution (D) Adaptation (Ans : C)

11. What should be the role of teacher in meeting the individual differences?

(A) Try to know the abilities, interest and aptitude of individuals

(B) Try to adjust the curriculum as per the needs of individuals

(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these (Ans : C)

12. If a child has mental age of 5 years and chronological age of 4 years than what will be the IQ of child?

(A) 125 (B) 80 (C) 120 (D) 100 (Ans : A)

13. Which of the following is not the tool for Formative Assessment in sholastic domain?

(A) Conversation Skill (B) Multiple Choice Question

(C) Projects (D) Oral Questions (Ans : C)

14. A few students in your class are exceptionally bright, you will teach them–

(A) Along with the class (B) Along with higher classes

(C) By using Enriched programmes (D) Only when they want (Ans : C)

15. The major purpose of diagnostic test is that of identifying–

(A) The General area of weakness in class performance (B) Specific nature of remedial Programme needed

(C) The causes underlying academic difficulties (D) The specific nature of pupil difficulties (Ans : C)

16. Special education is related to–

(A) Educational for talented students (B) Educational programmes for disabled

(C) Training programmes for Teachers (D) Training programme for retarded (Ans : B)

17. In CCE, Formative and Summative Assessment totals to–

(A) 40% and 60% respectively (B) 60% and 40% respectively

(C) 50% and 50% respectively (D) None of the above (Ans : A)

18. Frobel's most important contribution to education was his development of the–

(A) Vocational school (B) Kindergarten (C) Public school (D) Latin school (Ans : B)

19. Which article enjoins that "All minorities whether based on religion or language shall have the right to establish and administer education institutions of their choice" ?

(A) Article 29 (1) (B) Article 29 (2) (C) Article 30 (1) (D) Article 30 (2) (Ans : C)

20. If a child writes 16 as 61 and gets confused between Band D, this is case of–

(A) Visual Impairment (B) Learning Disability (C) Mental Impairment (D) Mental Retardation (Ans : B)

21. As a teacher what techniques you would follow to motivate students of your class–

1. By setting induction 2. Use of black board 3. By illustration 4. By active participation of students

(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 1 and 4 (C) 2 and 4 (D) All of these (Ans : D)

22. What are the factors related to learner that effects the learning?

(A) Physical and Mental health of the learner (B) Level of aspiration and achievement motivation

(C) Readiness and Willpower (D) All of these (Ans : D)

23. Cognitive Development means–

(A) Development of intelligence (B) Development of child

(C) Development of Physical Skills (D) Development of individual (Ans : A)

24. Creative writing should be an activity planned for–

(A) Only those children reading on grade level (B) Only those children spell and write cohesive sentences

(C) Only those children who want to write for newspaper (D) All children (Ans : A)

25. Which of the following are the External Factors affecting the interest of students in classroom?

(A) Emotions and Sentiments (B) Culture and Training

(C) Attitudes of students (D) Goals and motives (Ans : D)

26. An intelligent student is not doing well in studies. What is the best course of the action for the teacher?

(A) Wait till he performs better (B) Find out reason for his under achievement

(C) Give him grace marks in the examination (D) Ask his parents to withdraw from school (Ans : B)

27. The term Identical Elements is closely associated with–

(A) Similar test questions (B) Jealousy between peers

(C) Transfer of learning (D) Group Instructions (Ans : C)

28. Who was the pioneer of Classical Conditioning?

(A) Skinner (B) Pavlov (C) Watson (D) Thorndike (Ans : B)

29. It is said that teacher should be resourceful, This means that–

(A) He should have enough money and property so that he may not have to take up tuitions

(B) He should have contacts with high authorities so that he may not be harmed

(C) He should have adequate knowledge so that he may be able to solve the problems of students

(D) He should have good reputation among students so that authorities may not be able to take any punitive measure against him (Ans : C)

30. Which of the following Motives are considered as primary motives?

(A) Physiological Motives (B) Psychological Motives

(C) Social Motives (D) Educational Motives (Ans : A) –

Teaching Aptitude Questions Series-2

1. As a teacher, what will you do if students do not attend your class?

(A). Blame students for their absence from the class.

(B). Ponder over the present attitude of students in a calm manner.

(C). Think about using some interesting techniques of teaching.

(D). Try to understand the reasons and try to eliminate them.

Ans:-D

2. There will be better communication in a lecture if a teacher

(A). reads from prepared notes

(B). prepares the notes well in advance and use them as a guide

(C). talks extempore

(D). talks extempore drawing examples from other disciplines

Ans:-D

3. Teachers who are enthusiastic in be class-room teaching

(A). often lack proficiency in the subjects which stays hidden under their enthusiasm

(B). Simply dramatize to hold the student’s attention

(C). involve their students in the teaching-learning process

(D). all of the above

Ans:-C

4. One can be a good teacher, if he/she

(A). has genuine interest in teaching

(B). knows how to control students

(C). knows his/her subject

(D). has good expression

Ans:-C

5.The most important skill of teaching is

(A). making students understand what the teacher says

(B). covering the course prescribed in his subject

(C). keeping students relaxed while teaching

(D). taking classes regularly

Ans:-A

6. Effective teaching, by and large, is a function of

(A). Maintaining discipline in the class

(B). Teachers honesty

(C). Teacher’s making students learn and understand

(D). Teachers liking for the Job of teaching

Ans:-C

7. Success of a profession depends on—

(A) Policy to please individuals

(B) Maintaining relationship with people

(C) Maintaining quality of work

(D) Loyalty to the superiors

Ans. (C)

8. Main role of teacher is identified with a—

(A) Leader

(B) Planner

(C) Manager

(D) Motivator

Ans. (A)

9. Prior to teaching the teacher does—

(A) Identification of objectives

(B) Preparation of teaching lesson plan

(C) Know the interest of students

(D) All of the above

Ans. (D)

10. Effective teaching includes—

(A) Teacher is active but students may or may not be active

(B) Teacher may be active or inactive but students are active

(C) Teacher is active and students are active

(D) All of the above situations

Ans. (C)

11. Immediate outcome of teaching is—

(A) Changes in the behaviour of students in desirable direction

(B) Development of total personality of students

(C) Building characters of the students

(D) Getting selected for a suitable job

Ans. (A)

12. Basic requirement of teaching efficiency is—

(A) Mastery on teaching skills

(B) Mastery over use of different techniques of teaching

(C) Mastery over appropriate use of media and technology in teaching

(D) All of the above

Ans. (D)

13. Questioning skill in teaching is most useful in—

(A) Ensuring students’ active participation in learning

(B) Memorizing the facts by students

(C) Making students disciplined

(D) Preparing students for examination

Ans. (A)

14. A teacher wants to enhance his income. You will advise him/her to—

(A) Teach in coaching institutes during extra time

(B) Take more remunerative works in the school/college

(C) Join contractual assignments other than teaching

(D) Writing Books

Ans. (D)

15. As a principal you will encourage your teacher colleagues to—

(A) Participate in seminars and conferences in India and abroad

(B) Participate in refresher courses for enhancement of subject knowledge

(C) Doing community services for Upliftment of down trodden

(D) All of the above

Ans. (D)

16. A teacher shall inculcate social and moral values among students by—

(A) Delivering lectures on values

(B) Showing TV programmes

(C) Involving students actively in co curricular activities

(D) Observing Religious Festivals

Ans. (C)

17. The most significant approach of evaluation is—

(A) Continuous and comprehensive evaluation

(B) Conducting objective term end examination

(C) Maintaining cumulative records of students

(D) Semester system evaluation

Ans. (A)

18. Educational technology is useful because—

(A) it is the need of the hour

(B) it is adopted by famous institutions

(C) it makes teaching effective and efficient

(D) it attracts students towards teaching and learning activities

Ans. (C)

19. A teacher must have mastery over his subject for—

(A) alertness

(B) making impact on students

(C) interest

(D) making teaching effective

Ans. (D)

20. The term ‘kinder garden’ means—

(A) Children’s

(B) Children’s home

(C) Children’s school

(D) Children’s playground

Ans. (D)

21. The Kothari Commission Report on Education was entitled as—

(A) Education and National Development

(B) Learning ‘to be’

(C) Diversification of Education

(D) Education for all

Ans. (A)

22. The most appropriate meaning of learning is—

(A) Inculcation of knowledge

(B) Modification of behaviour

(C) Personal adjustment

(D) Acquisition of skills

Ans. (B)

23. Teachers knowledge on student’s needs and interests are covered by the subject—

(A) Philosophy of education

(B) Psychology of education

(C) Sociology of education

(D) Politics of education

Ans. (B)

24. Work experience in education means—

(A) Education for productivity with rural

(B) Working for a new social order

(C) Experience in industrial and technological world

(D) Education for orientation towards vocational courses

Ans. (D)

25. Integral education concept is propounded by—

(A) Sri Aurobindo

(B) Mahatma Gandhi

(C) Swami Dayanand

(D) Swami Vivekanand

Ans. (A) 

Teaching Aptitude Question Series 1

1. 10 + 2 + 3 system of education was recommended by—
(A) Kothari Commission
(B) Mudaliar Commission
(C) Radhakrishnan Commission
(D) National Policy on Education (1986)
Ans. (A)
2. ………. refers to states within a person or animal that drive behaviour towards some goal.
(A) Competence
(B) Affiliation
(C) Motivation
(D) Self-actualisation
Ans. (C)
3. Psychologists who diagnose learning problems and try to remedy them are called …………… Psychologists.
(A) Social
(B) Community
(C) School
(D) Clinical
Ans. (C)
4. The concept of state of readiness in maturation is important in understanding development of behaviour because it teaches us that certain skills may be difficult or impossible to learn before a given—
(A) Level of teaching
(B) Intelligence level
(C) Socio-economic level
(D) Age level
Ans. (D)
5. A child with average potential intelligence but fertile environment will achieve—
(A) A better life
(B) An average life
(C) Nothing in life
(D) Everything in life
Ans. (A)
6. Siblings, parents and teachers are important source of ………. for the children.
(A) Motivation
(B) Information
(C) Opinions
(D) Attitudes
Ans. (A)
7. A good understanding of ……….. makes us know about ourselves better.
(A) Education
(B) Colours
(C) Social perception
(D) None of the rest
Ans. (A)
8. Good tests of a psychological nature bear the following features—
(A) Reliability
(B) Cheaper
(C) Guessing Power
(D) Rote learning
Ans. (A)
9. Mental Health is—
(A) Harmonious functioning of the total personality
(B) Symptoms of maladjustment
(C) Terrible excitement
(D) Throwing up temper-tantrums
Ans. (A)
10. During the ………….. children are faced with a problem of coping with school.
(A) Toddlerhood
(B) Pro-social period
(C) Preschool period
(D) Middle childhood
Ans. (C)
11. The best way to memorize is—
(A) Study for long time
(B) To understand the concept
(C) To read loudly
(D) To write the concept
Ans. (B)
12. Students like that teacher who—
(A) Has attractive personality
(B) Belongs to his/her caste
(C) Awards goods work liberally
(D) Has very good knowledge of his/her subject
Ans. (D)
13. With the development of technology, the role of teacher in future will be—
(A) To provide information
(B) To develop new text-books
(C) To guide students
(D) To use internet in teaching
Ans. (C)
14. To prepare students as good citizen, a teacher should—
(A) Maintain strict discipline
(B) Provide good leadership
(C) Be good orator
(D) Have good general knowledge
Ans. (B)
15. Students should be given home-work to—
(A) Study at home
(B) Check their progress by teachers
(C) Keep them busy
(D) develop habit of self-study
Ans. (D)
16. It is necessary for the development of school—
(A) Principal and teacher
(B) Students
(C) Good building
(D) Other facilities
Ans. (B)
17. If a student comes late in class, then you—
(A) Will ignore him
(B) Will not allow him to sit in class
(C) Will punish him
(D) Will allow him to sit silently
Ans. (D)
18. The purpose of National Education Policy is—
(A) Universalisation of primary education
(B) Vocationalisation of education
(C) To review the education
(D) To give equal opportunity of education to all
Ans. (C)
19. A teacher learns most by—
(A) His students
(B) His colleagues
(C) His Principal
(D) His experiences during training
Ans. (D)
20. On first day in a class you will—
(A) Start teaching from first chapter
(B) Take introduction of students and introduce yourself
(C) Explain the syllabus
(D) Explain the rules of school and your teaching way
Ans. (B)
21. The standard of education can be raised by—
(A) Appointing good teachers
(B) Providing physical facilities in schools
(C) Reforming examination system
(D) Providing computer in schools
Ans. (A)
22. The purpose of establishing Navodaya Schools is—
(A) To complete ‘SarvaShikshaAbhiyan’ in rural areas
(B) To provide good education in rural areas
(C) Check wastage of education in rural areas
(D) To increase number of schools in rural areas
Ans. (B)
23. During teaching, a teacher gives example—
(A) To attract student’s attention
(B) To make lesson interesting
(C) To explain the lesson
(D) To continue the lesson for long time
Ans. (C)
24. If students are not taking interest in your teaching, then you will—
(A) Ignore them
(B) Leave the class
(C) Ask them to pay attention
(D) Change the teaching method
Ans. (D)
25. According to you, the aim of education should be—
(A) To provide knowledge
(B) To develop personality
(C) To make good ctizen
(D) To reform the society
Ans. (B)

OSI Model Explained.

Objective Questions(129-150)

129)what is the output:
void main()
{
printf(5+"computer science");
} Output: ter science

130) the minimum no. of record movement requires to merge five files A (with 10 records), B with(20 records),C (with 15 records),D (with 5 records)and E (with 25 records) in

(a) 165
(b) 90
(c)75
(d) 65

D)65
1.MOVE B-20 RECORDS TO A-->> 20
2.MOVE C-15 RECORDS TO A-->> 15
3.MOVE D-05 RECORDS TO A-->> 05
4.MOVE E-25 RECORDS TO A-->> 25

TOTAL---------------------------->> 65

keep the records of A fixed and insert the records of the other files in A sorted order .this would require 20+15+5+25=65 records movement.

131) We need a data word of atleast 16 bits. The C(n,k) with d-min=3 is. 1.C(26,21). 2.C(28,24) 3.C(31,26) 4.C(30,26)

We need to make k = n - m (where n=(2^m) - 1) >= 16, or 2^ m - 1 - m >=16.
• If we set m = 4, the result is n = 2^4 – 1=16 and k = 16 – 4= 12, which is not acceptable(<=16).
• If we set m = 5, the result is n = 2^5 - 1 =31and k = 31 – 5=26 , which satisfies the condition
So the code is C(n, k)=C(31,26).

132)TO_DS and From DS fields of wireless frame are 11 it means:
a. frame moving from AP to Computer.
b. Frame moving from computer to AP
c. Frame moving from AP to another AP
d. NONE of the above

133) A NOR gate recognizes only the input word whose bits are
(A) 0’s and 1’s
(B) 1’s
(C) 0’s
(D) 0’s or 1’s

134) Which of the following does not allow multiple users or devices to share one communications line?
A. doubleplexer B. multipplexer
C. concentrator
D. controller

135) which of the following technology solution a banks may use to transfer an e-cheque (A) XML (B) EDI (C) encrypted (D) Wml

136) Q. All of the following are examples of real security and privacy risks EXCEPT:
A. hackers.
B. spam.
C. viruses.
D. identity theft.

137) How many different Boolean functions of degree 4 are there
(A)2^4
(B)2^8
(C)2^12
(D)2^16

138)Inter process communication can be done through __________.
1 Mails
2 Messages
3 System calls
4 Traps

processcomunication can be done through 1. Pipes 2.Message 3.Shared memory 4. Signals

139)The wavelength of a signal depends on the ________.
a. Frequencies of the signal
b. Medium
c. Phase of the signal
d. (a) and (b)

140) If all the pages have been referenced (i-e. have their reference bit set) second chance page replacement algorithm degenerates into.........? a) LRU b)FIFO c)Pure FIFO d)OPT

141)How many relations are there on a set
with n elements that are symmetric and
a set with n elements that are reflexive
and symmetric ?
(A) 2n(n+1)/2 and 2n.3n(n–1)/2
(B) 3n(n–1)/2 and 2n(n–1)
(C) 2n(n+1)/2 and 3n(n–1)/2
(D) 2n(n+1)/2 and 2n(n–1)/2

No. of relations on an n element set that are symmetric is 2^(n(n+1)/2). No. of relations that are both reflexive and symmetric is 2^(n(n-1)/2). The answer is (D) (although there is typing error).

 

142) Concatenation operator in SQL *plus------
(a) &&
(b) + (c) –
(d) ||

143) Q. Which Programming language is considered the first Object-oriented Programming language?
A. Smalltalk
B. Simula

simula is first time use object in programming language but smalltalk is the first and fully object oriented programming language..........

Simula(1967) but Smalltalk(1970) with the actual idea of object oriented in mind..

144) Internet classifieds follow which e-commerce business model ?
(A)B2B
(B)B2C
(C)C2C
(D)G2B

145) what was originally called the "imitation game" by its creater?

a. the turing test b. LISP
c. the logic theorist
d. cybernetics

146) the data rate of a isdn-basic access-b-channel is:
1. 32kbps
2. 64 kbps 3.144 kbps
4. 192 kbps

147) Which of the following permutation can be obtained in the output (in the same order) using a stack assuming that
the input is the sequence1, 2, 3, 4, 5 in that order?
(E) 3, 4, 5, 1, 2
(F) 3, 4, 5, 2, 1
(G) 1, 5, 2, 3, 4
(H) 5, 4, 3, 1, 2

Push 1,2,3 stack-> 1,2,3
pop 3 , stack-> 1,2
Push 4, stack->1,2,4
pop 4 , stack->1,2
Push 5, stack->1,2,5
pop 5 , stack->1,2
Pop 2 , stack->1
Pop 1
So output sequence is 3,4,5,2,1 ans F

148) The frame continues to circulate in the ring has bit pattern
a. all 1
b. 10 so on
c. all 0 d. None of the above

149) the mapping of ip addresses by ethernet address is done by ............. protocol.

ARP, in which ip address is mapped into MAC address.

150) Q. The operating system is the most common type of ____________ software.
A. communication
B. application
C. system
D. word-processing software

SQL Questions

1.      Which is the subset of SQL commands used to manipulate Oracle Database structures, including tables?

Data Definition Language (DDL)

2.      What operator performs pattern matching?

LIKE operator

3.      What operator tests column for the absence of data?

IS NULL operator

4.      Which command executes the contents of a specified file?

             START <filename> or @<filename>

5.      What is the parameter substitution symbol used with INSERT INTO command?

             &

6.      Which command displays the SQL command in the SQL buffer, and then executes it?

             RUN

7.      What are the wildcards used for pattern matching?

             _ for single character substitution and % for multi-character substitution

8.      State true or false. EXISTS, SOME, ANY are operators in SQL.

             True

9.      State true or false. !=, <>, ^= all denote the same operation.

             True

10.  What are the privileges that can be granted on a table by a user to others?

            Insert, update, delete, select, references, index, execute, alter, all

11.  What command is used to get back the privileges offered by the GRANT command?

             REVOKE

12.  Which system tables contain information on privileges granted and privileges obtained?

             USER_TAB_PRIVS_MADE, USER_TAB_PRIVS_RECD

13.  Which system table contains information on constraints on all the tables created?

             USER_CONSTRAINTS

14.        TRUNCATE TABLE EMP;

DELETE FROM EMP;

Will the outputs of the above two commands differ?

             Both will result in deleting all the rows in the table EMP.

15.  What is the difference between TRUNCATE and DELETE commands?

             TRUNCATE is a DDL command whereas DELETE is a DML command. Hence DELETE operation can be rolled back, but TRUNCATE operation cannot be rolled back. WHERE clause can be used with DELETE and not with TRUNCATE.

16.  What command is used to create a table by copying the structure of another table?

Answer :

             CREATE TABLE .. AS SELECT command

Explanation :

To copy only the structure, the WHERE clause of the SELECT command should contain a FALSE statement as in the following.

CREATE TABLE NEWTABLE AS SELECT * FROM EXISTINGTABLE WHERE 1=2;

If the WHERE condition is true, then all the rows or rows satisfying the condition will be copied to the new table.

17.  What will be the output of the following query?

SELECT REPLACE(TRANSLATE(LTRIM(RTRIM('!! ATHEN !!','!'), '!'), 'AN', '**'),'*','TROUBLE') FROM DUAL;

             TROUBLETHETROUBLE

18.  What will be the output of the following query?

SELECT  DECODE(TRANSLATE('A','1234567890','1111111111'), '1','YES', 'NO' );

Answer :

             NO

Explanation :

The query checks whether a given string is a numerical digit.

19.  What does the following query do?

SELECT SAL + NVL(COMM,0) FROM EMP;

             This displays the total salary of all employees. The null values in the commission column will be replaced by 0 and added to salary.

20.  Which date function is used to find the difference between two dates?

             MONTHS_BETWEEN

21.  Why does the following command give a compilation error?

DROP TABLE &TABLE_NAME;

             Variable names should start with an alphabet. Here the table name starts with an '&' symbol.

22.  What is the advantage of specifying WITH GRANT OPTION in the GRANT command?

             The privilege receiver can further grant the privileges he/she has obtained from the owner to any other user.

23.  What is the use of the DROP option in the ALTER TABLE command?

             It is used to drop constraints specified on the table.

24.  What is the value of ‘comm’ and ‘sal’ after executing the following query if the initial value of ‘sal’ is 10000?

UPDATE EMP SET SAL = SAL + 1000, COMM = SAL*0.1;

             sal = 11000, comm = 1000

25.  What is the use of DESC in SQL?

Answer :

             DESC has two purposes. It is used to describe a schema as well as to retrieve rows from table in descending order.

Explanation :

The query SELECT * FROM EMP ORDER BY ENAME DESC will display the output sorted on ENAME in descending order.

26.  What is the use of CASCADE CONSTRAINTS?

             When this clause is used with the DROP command, a parent table can be dropped even when a child table exists.

27.  Which function is used to find the largest integer less than or equal to a specific value?

             FLOOR

28.  What is the output of the following query?

SELECT TRUNC(1234.5678,-2) FROM DUAL;

             1200